ARAMAIC ENGLISH NEW TESTAMENT PDF
The Original Aramaic Gospels in Plain English. (An American Translation of the Aramaic New Testament). Translated (with notes and commentary) by Rev. Second, I want to thank Rotchy Barker, who was my first trading mentor. He took me into his Page How the Turtle W. The Aramaic English Interlinear New Testament Color Edition Volume 1 - Ebook download as PDF File .pdf), Text File .txt) or read book online. The Aramaic.
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Description. The Aramaic English New Testament (AENT) 5th Edition [PDF] is a literal translation of the very oldest known Aramaic New Testament texts. This is. Aramaic English New Testament (AENT) Study Bible Software Apps, PDF, Language of Yeshua (Jesus), available now from Netzari Press. Original & accurate. Buy The Aramaic–English Interlinear New Testament - Color edition eBook ( PDF), Pages Thank you for sharing this in pdf for free!.
The Greek has no word for Yahweh. Both Greek readings: But Ps. See note at Matthew B has this verse and verse 14 in switched order. More evidence of an Aramaic original. The facts support a Peshitta original 0T! Lamed pair lw would look like Tau t. The blue pair is in square Aramaic script. Greek Primacy requires consistent and willful ignorance and neglect of the facts for its support. It appears that the Estrangela pair are most similar of the three. An Ayin 9 could easily be taken for a Gamal g if it were extended a bit at the bottom by an inadvertent stroke or smudge downward.
These are so common however. The data are much more easily accounted for by Peshitta Primacy than by Greek Primacy. It is unclear here that these false prophets will claim to be Divine. That is a claim to Deity. This is probably another case where the Greek translator misconstrued the Aramaic original. There can be no doubt that Shimeon was not a leper with The Messiah in his house as a dinner guest.
I am grateful for Paul Younan pointing this out in his interlinear of Matthew. The Aramaic explains the Greek variant reading. It can also mean.
The Critical Greek agrees with the Peshitta here. D have it. The Critical Greek text. The quotation in this verse is from Zechariah.
The Peshitta reading can explain the Greek readings.
It appears that The Greek texts attribute the quotation to Jeremiah because Jeremiah Those verses. There are no earlier Greek witnesses for this reading. The Peshitta Aramaic-English Interlinear Gospels The Holy Gospel Preaching of Matthew ytmd atwzwrk asydq Nwylgnwa 15 was awh accustomed dem but Nyd feast adae at every lkb one dx prisoner aryoa to release arsnd the Governor anwmgh had wwh chosen Nybu they Nwnhd whomever anya to the people amel 16 but Nyd to them Nwhl there was awh imprisoned ryoa Bar-Abba abarb who was called arqtmd notable aeydy a prisoner aryoa 17 desire Nybu whom?
The Critical Greek a. The major Greek texts also differ in their versions of the verse: Does that mean it was translated from that text in verse 2. The Peshitta text has no Greek transliteration nor a translation of Greek into Aramaic. The Peshitta in verse 2. That would be very unlikely. The Peshitta reading did not come from The Critical Greek text here. Why does Mark have two dialects of Aramaic in his text. I think Alexandria?
Why would both writers use lya lya. The Peshitta text certainly did not come from any Greek transliteration reading!
The facts as they are beg the question. The Greek letters for hli or eli. O God. Methinks Greek primacists are in denial. I shall assume Aramaic is intended and the scribe involved resorted to another Aramaic source.
Here is an ancient Targum Aramaic translation of the Hebrew of Psalm The Targum would have looked like this: That is why Mark translates from one dialect to another only twice! Here and other places make clear that our Lord and His people of Israel spoke Aramaic. Why have you forsaken Me? This seems the most likely explanation for the Greek readings. This is not to be expected either as a transliteration or translation of hli or elwi. Most of the written words of different dialects agree.
If so. Is not this a declaration of an Aramaic original and a Greek translation? That makes no sense whatsoever. The Peshitta of Mark Why have You forsaken Me? My God. If Greek were the original and Aramaic the translation. If the original words were not Greek. Why in the name of Sam Hill would the original Gospels be written in Greek. Here is a declaration that the original words of our Lord were not Greek.
The Greek in Matthew has: The Critical Greek reading. All Greek texts have the following: But according to the next verse. I lay it down of My own will. L have added: So much for the reliability of a. This is a misplaced quote from John He had said. The Majority Greek reading looks like it is based on a repeat reading of the end of v. Rarely does The Peshitta contain a passage that is not found in any major Greek text, which leads me to believe there was only one Greek translation of the Aramaic original and that either the Peshitta ms.
It is surprising that later Greek revisers never caught this. This validates the previous observation in Matthew that The Peshitta follows no known Greek text with any consistency. At the same time, The Peshitta readings can explain a host of Greek variants of both the major text types, whereas the Greek as we know it cannot account for the Peshitta text and the relatively extremely small number of variants found among its manuscripts. While it is true that any particular Greek ms.
Practically any Peshitta manuscript will fairly represent the Peshitta family of manuscripts as a whole and produce the same statistics as mentioned above for The Peshitta text in general. Such a claim cannot be made for any Greek ms. My analysis of the variations among Greek mss. When considering the Critical Greek mss.
Two of those mss. Nyxksm interog.? The Peshitta displays superior wit to the supposed inspired original Greek! Our Lord said. Nwtyrq ever Mwtmm not al Yeshua ewsy to them Nwhl said rma he was in great need qntoa when dk Dawid dywd did dbe what? Instead we have the reverse. Greek lexicons plainly state this is an Aramaic name. Acts and the epistles of Paul.
A Greek speaking people would have primarily Greek names. This indicates again that the 0T books were written about Aramaic speaking people with Aramaic names and culture. Nbzn shall we go? DSS kai tiaperasantev hlyon eiv gennhsaret gennhsaret kai proswrmisyhsan And when they had crossed over. The Peshitta generally agrees more with the majority Byzantine text.
It looks as if it read The Peshitta with a different word order. It does not consistently follow any Greek text type. These are the very two words that seem missing in the text at first. Quite often.
At the same time. The Westcott and Hort text apparently drops the word four times of the twenty times it occurs in a place name in the 0T. What is particularly interesting is the third Greek version. AD I have more analysis and comparison of Greek Mark with The Peshitta at my web site: BYZ kai diaperasantev hlyon epi thn ghn gennhsaret kai proswrmisyhsan And when they had crossed over. It and the two other versions represent each a valid translation of the Peshitta text.
Three Greek versions follow: WH kai diaperasantev epi thn ghn hlyon eiv gennhsaret kai proswrmisyhsan And when they had crossed over.
It is dated approx. The discovery of 7Q The Greek 0T uses that very word six times with literal Aramaic phrases and words. Might this account for the Greek variants?
Greek mss. Vaticanus and Sinaiticus 4th cent. The Peshitta has each verse as a complete sentence. There are hundreds such occurrences in The 0T! Verse 2 in the Greek texts has both. The other Greek mss.
This is just another of many such cases in all known Greek mss. The Peshitta has no cases of transliterating Greek phrases with a translation following. There are many more transliterations which are simply left alone.
The inclusion of those contained in The Greek beg the question: Where is the original Aramaic? The many other tell-tale Aramaic words. What is difficult to account for is that there are any translations of Aramaic into Greek accompanying a transliterated Aramaic word or phrase. They are not Greek words. Which of the disciples mutilated his own body and instructed others to do so? If they did not do and teach this as a literal practice. What are people thinking? Apparently they are not. Hardly a literal sense.
James in the Greek has it once in error. If it were wicked to chop off hands. See note at v. The former makes a man a self mutilator. He believes that it is fanaticism to dismember oneself. Gehenna was a place in Israel where garbage was always burning and where criminals bodies were thrown. We cannot make half figurative and the other literal.
If taking hands and feet literally here is madness. Are you able to drink the cup of which I drink. And he took His twelve and He began to tell them the things that would happen unto Him. Jesus said to them: What do you want Me to do for you? Grant to us. Jesus was before them: Nwdmet am ana baptized dme in which I anad But he said to them: The two Greek words are not to be easily confused.
This blind man spoke Aramaic. Jesus said to him. I would hazard a guess that the original Greek translator was getting pretty bleary eyed at this point in his translation work.
The next two verses make this clear. Resurrection is not reserved for a future dispensation. It is definitely a perfect tense. Nylyaw 2 you tna see? The Greek agrees with the Western Peshitta here. The Western does not.
The Son of The Blessed One? It is also one name for Satan in Aramaic. King of the Judeans! And he called the centurion.
It is worth the effort to obtain such unique knowledge. I have numbered the English translation next to each Aramaic word in the proper reading order.
You are reading a word for word rendering from the original language and text of the Gospels. In this first verse. Here is the English translation as it should be read from the interlinear: Chapter 1 Verse 1 5 4 3 2 1 an account atyest to write Nwbtknd were willing wbu many aaygod because ljm 9 8 7 6 are persuaded Nyopm of which we Nnxd those Nylya of the events anrewod Luke 1: In Luke 1: This is a very poor translation of the Greek of verse 3.
JBA to be fit. That Luke refers to Him is fairly evident. It would seem that Western churches. Mark and Luke? He would have been merely rehashing second hand information and serving warmed up leftovers.
Luke is saying that The Lord Yeshua The Messiah had appeared to him and had authorized and directed his writing of this Gospel. This has subtly and slowly supplanted the Spiritual with the intellectual. Luke would probably be the last of the four Gospels written. He was not writing a literary composition here. Why would it be received otherwise? This refers plainly to John 1: The Comprehensive Aramaic Lexicon has: That is no recommendation worthy of an inspired Gospel of The 0ew Testament. The spoken or written word does not have eyewitnesses and servants.
Would an inspired writer say. Would he then suppose that he would improve on the inspired accounts?. Luke 1: If he were not. Bab lit. That would be the height of presumption.
This would be out of place with respect to the spoken or written word. Verse three says Luke was also an eyewitness of The Messiah. If I am right about Luke 1: The Way. The Peshitta Aramaic-English Interlinear Gospels aqwld atwzwrk asydq Nwylgnwa The Holy Gospel Preaching of Luke of the words almd the truth arrs that you may know edtd by these things Nyhl of which you have been instructed tdmlttad Verse 4 confirms what I have written for verse three.
This is not an accurate word to use, as Caesar did not register everyone in the world, only those of The Roman Empire, which did not include large sections of the eastern world and the Middle East.
Thayers Greek English Lexicon says that oikoumenh may refer to the Roman Empire, but it is never translated as such in any 0T translation that I can see but for one place in Acts It can include Heaven and Sheol and all created beings of all time.
The Greek mss. The reverse scenario is a much more likely one. It is much easier to misread the word amle as ame than to miswrite ame as amle.
Again, the Peshitta reading can more easily account for the Greek reading than vice versa. Mark,Paul and John all wrote of the redemption of the whole creation: See Romans 8: Two similar and more compelling examples follow: Is it likely The Byzantine Greek translator saw in old Aramaic characters and interpreted it as If so, then aiwniou eternal would approximate. The Crawford Aramaic mss.
CAL Outline Lexicon: So the Greek mss. The noun form comes from the verb. Luke was more careful. The Holy Spirit would not speak of Joseph as the father of Yeshua. The Critical Greek agrees with The Peshitta reading here. The Majority Greek text agrees with The Peshitta here.
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All Greek mss. It looks like a loan word from the Greek which had been incorporated into Aramaic. A tetrarch ruled a fourth of a country give or take a little. The Peshitta has no verb at all here. It looks like that may be explained on the basis of the Aramaic of The Peshitta.
The Aramaic form used here is a noun. There are some loan words in practically every language borrowed from neighboring or conquering countries. All the Greek mss. This comports with the idea of the Greek being a translation of the Aramaic. Majority Greek. The Greek. The words of verses are from Isaiah That is less precise and leaves much more room for mischief in interpretation. The Aramaic is even more definite than the Greek.
To take the Greek phrase. The LXX is lacking the verse of 1 Chronicles 1: The Greek of Luke. Joseph was a descendant of David. The genealogy of Mary is given in Matthew 1: The Aramaic reading is much more precise and definite: The loose Greek construction is construed by some to refer to Jesus.
This form is used throughout the Greek genealogy to indicate sonship. Luke 3: It is playing too fast and loose with language and logic to be credible.
It is not. See note on this at the end of the chapter. If Joseph were not descended from Heli. Mary descended from Solomon. And he was accounted the son of Joseph. Hebrew mss. Her name is in Matthew 1: Blue Greek words are. Bar Matthat. The two are definitely not the same.
And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age. That is her genealogy. One would expect precision in such a case. These are practically all the names that differ in the two languages.
The Aramaic English Interlinear New Testament Color Edition Volume 1
Hebrew and Aramaic. As such. Practically all of these may be explained as different transliterations and interpretations of the Aramaic letters in The Peshitta. The Greek is imprecise. All the other names found in The O. Of the total We should expect a Semitic genealogy for all those Semitic names.
In The Peshitta. Even the numbers of its words and letters point to a Divine author. There was also some revision of the Greek. The Assyrians imposed the language on all subjects of the Assyrian empire from the ninth century B. The Aramaic language was spoken by the Aramaeans Syrians and the Assyrians. Aramaic which meaneth. Joh 1: Luke 8: It also indicates that the Greek word didaskale.
Teacher Greek. Strongs Greek-English Lexicon has: In the parallel passage Mark 4: Where abidest thou? This is a plain indication that the Greek text is a translation of an Aramaic source. That is probably why the Greek transliterates it instead 18 times in Greek letters: English Lexicon 1 any sort of superintendent or overseer Compare Luke 8: The Aramaic text gave rise to the Greek reading. A master was not necessarily a Rabbi. And she turned. Epistata occurs 7 times matching Rabbi.
It is also a formal title for the clergyman leader of a synagogue. All of these Greek translations and transliterations are evidence supporting an Aramaic original. The Greek words didaskalov. Aramaic and Hebrew share the same alphabet and both were written with the same script.
The Peshitta has. Much better. The Greek could derive from the Aramaic. That is not a convincing reading when compared to The Peshitta reading. The Latin Vulgate seems to have been translated from a slightly different Greek ms. The Critical Greek P This is the only place where the word is found in any Greek writing. The Critical Greek text agrees with The Peshitta reading and word order exactly.
It looks as if The Peshitta book of Luke is pretty much in line with the other Peshitta Gospels in numbers of occurrences per text size. The Peshitta Gospels seem to be fairly consistent in the usage of the 0ame. Greek This can be explained in one of two ways: Aramaic Mark and John is 1.
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The Greek values have a mean of 0. Another statistic to consider is the number of occurrences of the name per total words of text Peshitta Yeshua. Peshitta reading Greek reading in Aram. If the Greek is original. Adding 77 occurrences of Ihsouv to the Greek book of Luke the difference in the numbers of The 0ame between the two versions would put Greek Luke on a par with the other Gospels with regard to the 0ame frequency.
It would be much easier to misread such a word than to miswrite it. They do not look as similar in that script. The average for the other 3 Gospels is 1. That is a rather radical variation. Might this strange similarity explain the Greek reading? One could probably easily be mistaken for the other. Square Aramaic: If The Peshitta is the original. Matthew Greek The Peshitta in Luke has Yeshua. On the other hand. The average for Matthew.
That is not a likely event for a sober scribe. There are many examples like this one which I point out in this interlinear of the Gospels. Luke used it only once in every words! That is less than half the frequency of the others. O Daniel. The Peshitta has statistics which support its originality. The other Gospel writers used it once for every words. Jos 8: His in place of the other half?
Was Luke ashamed of the 0ame of His Lord? I think not I think the Greek primacy theory fails its proponents here. I have demonstrated this in a controlled experiment which I have included in my book. And another from Joshua 9: Why would an original inspired Gospel of Ihsouv contain Ihsouv Jesus only half as often as the other Gospels and substitute! The Peshitta does not. Below is a sample verse of the Aramaic text of Daniel 6: The above are three of many examples of the LXX dropping words from the original.
The Hebrew book of Joshua has occurrences of the name of Joshua eswhy. The original Aramaic. Jos 9: Divine Contact. Here is an example from Joshua 8: The Aramaic is quite clear. The Majority Greek text agrees with the Peshitta here. It was where 0ahum The Prophet had lived centuries before. Surely He was indicating He was about to change her sorrow into joy by some almost unimaginable means. The Greek versions contain those very errors: All the pertinent words for the above groups are Greek nouns.
Luke 6: This makes for great drama but very poor logic. Our Lord and The Holy Spirit would not speak so. The poor are those who are in expectation. To receive the gospel message is as great a miracle as raising the dead. To be given good news or given hope. Jesus the Messiah. They were henceforth rich men and women. Christ is not a hoping for glory.
Tit 2: It gives sight to the blind. Col 1: That was the good news. In a word. Heb 6: Jer The following scriptures speak of hope as the very thing hoped for. Pr Most hopes men hold. It is the miracle of the ages. The past tense is the best for these people whom He had healed or resurrected: He is the Glory for which we hoped.
It is giving. Hope is. Heb 7: This confirms again that the Greek texts come from the Aramaic Peshitta. What does occur in 22 places. The Greek versions have wta. Tau is the last. I have identified approx. Omega code on the part of the original Greek translator. Most Aramaic nouns have the same form in plural as in singular.
Alep is the first letter of the Aramaic alphabet. If atxrp were seen as the code word. See Mat. Can it be a coincidence that the Aramaic alphabet Alep to Tau has 22 letters? The combination may be reversed in some places.
One hearing ear is sufficient to receive the message. It also implies that the Greek text generally is a translation. According to the Greek of John 1: If The Peshitta were a translation. Who preached and performed miracles in its streets. They rejected The Messiah Yeshua. That was their exaltation to Heaven. Capernaum no longer exists today. The latter is a much more tenable position.
When ye pray. In this and in many other similar comparisons. Thy kingdom come. And he said unto them. Hallowed be thy name. Give us day by day our daily bread. Which is more likely? Consider the following: In The Hebrew OT. It is also synonymous with adas. This looks like sabotage to me. Matthew Acts It is definitely a reference to Jesus. Leaves one a bit flat. All others refer to demons. On the basis of a Greek original.
And bring us not into temptation. Whom Paul was preaching to the Greeks. Why would a translator assuming a Greek original translate Daimonion twice as Sheda in verse 14 and then change it to Deeva twice in the next verse? All four references are in the same context. Deeva-Sheda for each of the four occurrences of the Greek! I do believe the good eye-evil eye concepts involve much more than generosity and stinginess.
Verse 41 would seem to validate that view in connection with verses Yes I say to you. He tells us in verse 7.
He does want us to fear ourselves. We should fear Self. Her answer was simply. The power to commit sin logically indicates the power to do right. I would not? The lesson is illustrated by the animal world: Who of us can do that by our efforts? That is a small thing. We believe we can do the great thing but not!
These activities illustrate the care our Lord? The fact is. Our Lord does not challenge us to add a cubit 18 inches to our stature by worrying. What has He to do with convention and the ways of the world 26 you Nwtna can do Nyxksm the small thing atrwez not al even Pa but Nyd if Na do you Nwtna take pains Nypuy the rest akrs over le why? The people of the world worship and serve Mammon.
I like that so much more than the conventional Greek based translations: This does not mean. The world seeks temporal things by their laboring for them.. If they would labor for the eternal. The Jewish leaders regularly insisted that Jesus violated the law of Moses by healing on the Sabbath. Such an error is possible.
This is the word our Lord uses against him. They all seem to agree with the interlinear text I provide above. The scribe would have had to have meant to write yhnml and written yxnml instead. I can find no evidence of any such reading in any Peshitta manuscript. As you can see. The Peshitta has no demonstrable errors of the hand or eye. In the words of C. Stand ye in the ways. Jer 6: In returning and rest shall ye be saved.
He speaks as the Deity of Israel and His words are: Zec 1: Thus saith the LORD of hosts. You will not see me. We will not walk therein. In my opinion. But they said. Turn ye now from your evil ways. The Holy One of Israel. Many Greek variants can be so explained.
The Majority Greek text. Which Greek text? Codex Beza D of the 6th cent. The Peshitta agrees with the Majority Greek text. In verse Where is the Greek text that can account for these different readings in three consecutive verses.
The Peshitta agrees with the Critical Greek text. The Peshitta can in this way account for all Greek texts. The Majority Greek agrees with The Peshitta here. The Romans occupied Israel at this time. Jesus Yeshua is missing in all Greek texts. What business had the Jews of Israel with Greek drachmas?
It would contain the Jewish coins of the time. Aaaygod with one Alep still has the same meaning: All Peshitta mss. The Peshitta O. The Greek texts in this verse have Batouv. Since the translator knew this word was of Hebrew origin. The Aramaic word is Nyrtm. It is more likely the Greek was translated from the Aramaic than vice versa.
Grey shaded words are not found in most or any Greek mss. It is safe to say that our Lord Yeshua held to the infallibility of scripture and understood that to include the idea that even in His time. It was an apparent reference to the Massoretic scribal tradition of precision in copying scripture going back to the first century and before.
The Jewish people had repudiated Greek culture altogether. Two late Greek mss. They would not have been able to read them and it would have been an insult to their conscience to learn Greek.
P75 2nd-3rd Cent. It was for Him Divinely inspired. Our Lord held a very high view of The Hebrew Bible. All of these are symbols. W -most Greek mss. In every place. It is ludicrous to assume the original Gospels.
In Matthew 5: We can place all confidence in it. The primary instruments in effecting that great transformation would be a cross and a tomb: He saw the Word of God as more sacred than all creation. He lays down a new law. They were to be universal and eternal events. He lays down His law in the Gospels. Paul The Apostle explains this all later in his great epistles. That law follows in verse We have His Word on it. Only The Peshitta has this reading.
Greek omits verse Only Codex D and about 40 late miniscules and lectionaries contain it. The Latin Vulgate contains it in verse Thank you for notifying us.
The page you are attempting to access contains content that is not intended for underage readers. David Bauscher. This is The N. Gospels in the language of Jesus and his countrymen of 1st century Israel, with a word for word translation into English next to each Aramaic word. Aramaic was used in Mel Gibson's film "The Passion of the Christ" to make the film as realistic as possible.
There are many graphics and even photos from Dead Sea Scrolls to illustrate an Aramaic verse and how a reading was interpreted by a Greek translating the text. Full Color Hardback 8.
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By Rev. David Bauscher eBook: The Holy Peshitta Bible David Bauscher Hardcover: The Original HolyThe blue pair is in square Aramaic script. That would be very unlikely. A diverse tapestry of Jewish and Christian ideologists has collectively provided thousands of hours of unbiased peer review. The words of verses are from Isaiah Jos 8: So it is then in the some places where Petrov occurs in The Greek 0T.
To file a notice of infringement with us, you must provide us with the items specified below. Thayers Greek English Lexicon says that oikoumenh may refer to the Roman Empire, but it is never translated as such in any 0T translation that I can see but for one place in Acts I am lifted out of myself by them.
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